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200-105 dumps
Up to the immediate present Cisco 200-105 dumps exam cram:
Question No : 184 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to  communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to VLAN 1.
Question No : 185 – (Topic 1)  What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation: Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.
Question No : 186- (Topic 1)  Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the
blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
200-105 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.
Question No : 187- (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID

2. A lower path cost to the Root
3. A lower Sending Bridge ID
4. A lower Sending Port ID
Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 188 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
200-105 pdf Answer: D,F
Question No : 189 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.
QUESTION 190
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 191
A Trend Analysis is best described as:
A. Examining project performance over time
B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 192
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :
A. An analysis of the critical path
B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. a and g
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 193
Which is not included in Performance improvements :
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviours
D. Improvements in team capabilities
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 194
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the
PERT weighted average?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 6.3
D. 6.1
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 195
A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope
management plan prepared?
A. Initiation
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Verify Scope
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 196
Project scope is:
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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Explanation:
QUESTION 197
The planning processes are:
A. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define Activities
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract administration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 198
A Resource Leveling is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 199
A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:
A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 200
An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building
D. Providing technical support
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 201
A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by:
A. Lead time
B. Lag time
C. Negative Lag
D. a or g
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 202
Which of the following is an output of the Define Scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Change Requests
C. Project document updates.
D. Project scope statement
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 203
Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which of the following
dependencies:
A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. External dependency
C. Mandatory dependency
D. Soft Logic
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 204
A complex project will fit best in what type of an organization?
A. Functional
B. Cross-functional
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
200-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 205
___________ coordinates people and other resources to carry out the plan.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Resource planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Executing process
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 206
Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities technique ?
A. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
B. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
C. Fragment Network
D. All of the above
200-105 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 207
Which of the following includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work
required, and only the work required, to complete a project successfully.
A. Project plan update
B. Project scope management
C. Control Scope
D. Product description
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 208
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Control Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Resources
200-105 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 209
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Control Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 210
A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:
A. Elapsed Time
B. Duration
C. Effort
D. Earned Time
200-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 211
You are a project manager of a company. You are taking over a project during the planning process, and
you discovered that many individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should be
areas of concern for you?
A. Who will be a member of the change control board?
B. Who are the stakeholders for the project?
C. Need to spend more time on configuration management.
D. Determining the reporting structure.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 212
Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process ?
A. Scope statement
B. Change Requests
C. Formal acceptance
D. Work breakdown structure
200-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

200-105 dumps

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