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1Y0-401 dumps

Up to the immediate present Citrix 1Y0-401 dumps exam cram:

QUESTION 64
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for end user access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
A Citrix Architect recommends that the SAP and Office Suite images be consolidated into a single image. Which two factors helped guide the architect’s recommendation? (Choose two.)
A. A reduction in Hotfix testing time
B. CGE’s planned upgrade to Microsoft Office 2013
C. The use of both applications by all CGE end users
D. End-user complaints about slow application launch times
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 66
Which change to the corporate Windows 7 client would prevent single sign-on to the infrastructure using the end user’s Active Directory account?
A. A Smart Card reader is installed to allow the end user to log on with an X509 certificate issued by the Active Directory Certificate Authority.
B. The workstation has the ‘Interactive login: Do not display last user name’ policy applied and enforced by Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. The native Windows Receiver is removed and end users can access the environment using the HTML Receiver through a web browser.
D. The Windows workstation is joined to a different domain than where the end user account resides, and the two domains are in the same forest.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which tool should a Citrix Architect use to collect session latency and bandwidth requirements for end users in the Jurong office?
A. HDX Monitor
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix EdgeSight
D. Citrix AppCenter Console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. Why does implementing RAID 10 satisfy the requirements?

A. It provides striping and the highest performance.
B. It minimizes disk space and provides the highest performance.
C. It minimizes disk space and provides fault tolerance.
D. It provides fault tolerance and the highest performance.
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. How should the architect design the image management process using Windows Deployment Services?
A. Prepare an existing machine as the master image.
B. Install a new Windows image utilizing a XenServer virtual machine prepared as the master image, install the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), and run SysPrep on the virtual machine.
C. Use a XenServer virtual machine to install a new Windows image with MAK prepared as the master image, and ensure the image has two network cards.
D. Run the Capture Image Wizard on an existing machine.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. Why is XenServer Fast Clone the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces machine-provisioning time.
C. It minimizes network traffic.
D. It improves image deployment consistency.
1Y0-401 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
Scenario:
CGE has two StoreFront server groups. End users need to be able to roam between regions but keep their individual application subscriptions. What should a Citrix Architect recommend to fulfill this requirement and keep management overhead to a minimum?
A. Configure all regions to be part of the same server group.
B. Configure a mandatory store in StoreFront to keep consistent application sets.
C. Copy the end-user subscription database between the server groups manually.
D. Configure scheduled subscription replication between server groups using PowerShell.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Machine Creation Services to facilitate image management?
A. By using Fast Clones

B. By using Machine Creation Services policies
C. By using snapshots
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. Why does using Provisioning Services and leveraging snapshots help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rollbacks.
B. It manages version control.
C. It leverages storage array features to offload host processing.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. Why does using Hypervisor templates and leveraging Workflow Studio to deploy desktops from templates help manage the image versioning process?
A. It allows for automatic, scripted upgrades of the deployment template.
B. It provides centralized, automated, single-image management.
C. It facilitates consistent deployment of base images.
D. It allows for scripts to be executed from the same network share as the deployment template.
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. Why do using Hypervisor templates and WAIK help manage the image versioning process?
A. It reduces image deployment time.
B. It reduces the storage requirement for images.
C. It allows for testing updates prior to updating the production machine catalog.
D. It allows for testing updates prior to updating the production Delivery Group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
You are working with a vendor on your project. A stakeholder has requested a change for the project, which will add value to the project deliverables. The vendor that you’re working with on the project will be affected by the change. What system can help you introduce and execute the stakeholder change request with the vendor?
A. Contract change control system
B. Scope change control system
C. Cost change control system
D. Schedule change control system
1Y0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
You are the project manager of GHT project. You are performing cost and benefit analysis of control. You come across the result that costs of specific controls exceed the benefits of mitigating a given risk. What is the BEST action would you choose in this scenario?
A. The enterprise may apply the appropriate control anyway.
B. The enterprise should adopt corrective control.
C. The enterprise may choose to accept the risk rather than incur the cost of mitigation.
D. The enterprise should exploit the risk.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Mortality tables are based on what mathematical activity? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Normal distributions
B. Probabilities
C. Impact
D. Sampling
1Y0-401 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 79
Harry is the project manager of HDW project. He has identified a risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. What type of risk response is Harry implementing?
A. Transference
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Avoidance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
The Identify Risk process determines the risks that affect the project and document their characteristics. Why should the project team members be involved in the Identify Risk process?
A. They are the individuals that will most likely cause and respond to the risk events.
B. They are the individuals that will have the best responses for identified risks events within the project.
C. They are the individuals that are most affected by the risk events.
D. They are the individuals that will need a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risk events.
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
What are the requirements of monitoring risk? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Information of various stakeholders
B. Preparation of detailed monitoring plan
C. Identifying the risk to be monitored
D. Defining the project’s scope
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 82
Your company is covered under a liability insurance policy, which provides various liability coverage for information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc. Which of the following risk management techniques is your company using?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk acceptance
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you to work with the key project stakeholder to analyze the risk events you have identified in the project. They would like you to analyze the project risks with a goal of improving the project’s performance as a whole. What approach can you use to achieve this goal of improving the project’s performance through risk analysis with your project stakeholders?
A. Involve subject matter experts in the risk analysis activities
B. Involve the stakeholders for risk identification only in the phases where the project directly affects them
C. Use qualitative risk analysis to quickly assess the probability and impact of risk events
D. Focus on the high-priority risks through qualitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
You are a project manager for your organization and you’re working with four of your key stakeholders. One of the stakeholders is confused as to why you’re not discussing the current problem in the project during the risk identification meeting. Which one of the following statements best addresses when a project risk actually happens?
A. Project risks are uncertain as to when they will happen.
B. Risks can happen at any time in the project.
C. Project risks are always in the future.
D. Risk triggers are warning signs of when the risks will happen.
1Y0-401  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which of the following is the MOST effective method for indicating that the risk level is approaching a high or unacceptable level of risk?
A. Risk register
B. Cause and effect diagram
C. Risk indicator
D. Return on investment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?
A. Risk Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy

C. Communications Management Plan
D. Resource Management Plan
1Y0-401 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 87
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of your project but worried about that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your consideration is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could declare their supervision as poor. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Root cause analysis
C. Isolated pilot groups
D. SWOT analysis
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
Which of the following represents lack of adequate controls?
A. Vulnerability
B. Threat
C. Asset
D. Impact
1Y0-401 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
The only output of qualitative risk analysis is risk register updates. When the project manager updates the risk register he will need to include several pieces of information including all of the following except for which one?
A. Trends in qualitative risk analysis
B. Risk probability-impact matrix
C. Risks grouped by categories
D. Watchlist of low-priority risks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which of the following risks is the risk that happen with an important business partner and affects a large group of enterprises within an area or industry?
A. Contagious risk
B. Reporting risk
C. Operational risk
D. Systemic risk
1Y0-401 dumps Correct Answer: D

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