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Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle
Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?
A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically
added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
Correct Answer: A
Previously (10g and earlier), in the case of Oracle RAC, the CRS took care of the detection and restarts. If you didn\\’t
use RAC, then this was not an option for you. However, in this version of Oracle, you do have that ability even if you do
not use RAC. The functionality known as Oracle Restart is available in Grid Infrastructure. An agent checks the
availability of important components such as database, listener, ASM, etc. and brings them up automatically if they are
down. The functionality is available out of the box and does not need additional programming beyond basic
configuration. The component that checks the availability and restarts the failed components is called HAS (High
Here is how you check the availability of HAS itself (from the Grid Infrastructure home):
$ crsctl check has CRS-4638: Oracle High Availability Services is online Note:
crsctl config has
Use the crsctl check has command to display the automatic startup configuration of the Oracle High Availability Services
stack on the server.
The crsctl config has command returns output similar to the following:
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services autostart is enabled.
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the
performance of SQL statements.
A. Change in the Oracle Database version
B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade
Correct Answer: ACE
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the
performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as
major or minor as you like, such as:
(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
(A,C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
Database initialization parameter changes.
Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
Refreshing optimizer statistics.
Creating or changing SQL profiles.
The tnsnames.ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:
The TNS ping command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you
are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:
SQL > CONNECT scott/[email protected]
What could be the reason for this?
A. The listener is not running on the database node.
B. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C. The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D. The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E. The listener is running on a different port.
Correct Answer: C
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available.
A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During
registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and
addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)
A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table.
B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table.
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table.
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table.
F. Merge partitions of a reference-partitioned index.
Correct Answer: ABF
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and execute
the following sequence statements:
What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?
A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable database
Correct Answer: C
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database
12c. Examine the table definition:
Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table?
A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP
and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for
data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.
Correct Answer: ABE
A: To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is having TV
enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the Alter Table for the
existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and will be used in the Period For
clause or you can skip having them in the table\\’s definition in the case of which, the Period For clause would be
creating them internally.
E: ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME Procedure
This procedure enables session level valid time flashback.
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private TEMP tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the SYSAUX tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Correct Answer: BDG
A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contain other user created tablespaces in it.
There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary
tablespaces in individual PDBs.
There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another. Normally,
a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when an database instance is restarted after
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed. Which three statements are
true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?
A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
Correct Answer: BCD
The Segment Advisor generates the following types of advice:
If the Segment Advisor determines that an object has a significant amount of free space, it recommends online
segment shrink. If the object is a table that is not eligible for shrinking, as in the case of a table in a tablespace without
automatic segment space management, the Segment Advisor recommends online table redefinition (C).
(D) If the Segment Advisor encounters a table with row chaining above a certain threshold, it records that fact that the
table has an excess of chained rows.
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Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (JO) and sales organizations (SO). The sales
organizations would not transact Inventory Kerns. IO 2 would not be used right away, but would be created during the
implementation. What is the minimum number of sub inventories required for this implementation?
A. four (one for each IO being utilized at implementation)
B. five (One for each IO. SOs would not require subinventories.)
C. eight (Inventory and sales organizations require a minimum of one subinventory each.)
D. 10 (Each IO requires at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping. )
E. 16 (Each IO and SO should have at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping. )
Correct Answer: B
Identify the two statements that directly relate to material status control. (Choose two.)
A. A material status can be enabled or disabled as required.
B. The material status is defaulted when using Order Management.
C. A serial number can be assigned a status that excludes it from reservations.
D. A material status is a combination of transactions and planning actions that are allowed.
E. If status control is not enabled for a transaction type, the transaction type is always allowed.
Correct Answer: DE
Identify four features of Workflow Monitor. (Choose four.)
A. Enables you to view your workflows
B. Enables you to modify a workflow definition file
C. Enables you to download workflow definition file
D. displays status information for the process instance
E. Enables administrators to perform control operations
F. Enables you to search for a workflow process instances
G. provides only summary-level information about Individual activities of a workflow process
Correct Answer: ADEF
The technical architecture In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 supports the business needs of the application.
Select three technical features Included in the technical architecture In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose
B. mobile Interface
C. rapid Implementation
D. Business Intelligence
E. end-to-end integration
F. self-service (HTML/JSPs)
Correct Answer: BDF
You are Involved In a project to upgrade to Oracle E-Business Suite, Release 12. You need more information about the
upgrade processes and paths. Where would you find the upgrade guide for Oracle E-Business Suite?
B. Bug Database
C. Technical Forums
D. MetaLink Knowledge Base
E. Oracle Technology Network
F. Customer Knowledge Exchange
Correct Answer: D
A Global Single Instance (GSI) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model. Identify three features
In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that support a GSI. (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements in the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose three.)
A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand source.
B. For on-hand Inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called high-level reservation.
C. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called low-level reservation.
D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot be imported from third-party
E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and represents a
guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demand source. F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material
you previously set aside for a sales order, account, account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process
batch components or, Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.
F. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account, account alias,
inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair
Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not negative.
Correct Answer: AEF
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